Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 28.06.2025 06:31
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What do you think about wearing sheer pantyhose?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What do you think about Anthony Scaramucci saying that JD in JD Vance stands for "Just Dull?"
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.